Quote:
Originally Posted by Jamo
J.T....could you please help me understand what the relevance of the state law prohibiting certain acts of sodomy is to Jerry Lee Lewis' situation?
The Family Law Code provisions relating to domestic partnerships don't regulate certain business practices regulated by federal law.
I would need to enlist both roscoe and CDC to help me cut/paste treatises to fully assplain why a marriage license occupies a higher level of legal significance than a domestic partnership license.
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Did I make that connection?
If your question is from the statement
"Jerry Lee Lewis was considered a pedophile, and his "wife" was fine with it, that's consent."
That was in response to VRM's statement
"Polygamy is not between two consenting adults, neither is pedophilism."
I probably should have addressed it as a question in response.
Then shouldn't the argument be taken on the federal level?